Hi Mrs. Morley!
†††††††††I have a question for you. I know you once spoke at a conference
concerning women's place in the church and was wondering if you could answer
something for me.
†††††††††I've been given the opportunity to witness to strangers in a sort of
"preaching" platform. My question is this: Does what Paul writes in the Bible about
women not being allowed to preach or teach men apply to my situation? I want to
do everything I possibly can to reach and affect the lost for Christ, but not if that
means disobeying the Word or my convictions.
Brittany (name changed)
†††††††††I could easily answer your question with a word or two, yet I prefer to give
you some food for thought. I want you to be confident with the conclusion you
come to. As you referred, Paul told Timothy, "I do not allow a woman to teach or
exercise authority over a man" (1 Timothy 2:12).There are many sides to what
Paul says here.
†††††††††Some very knowledgeable women believe that they can teach men because
they take Paul's prohibition against it as applicable only to the culture of his day,
like his requirement that women wear head coverings (1 Corinthians 11:5).
†††††††††The opposing view is that in the Timothy passage, Paul bases his point on
the creation of Adam and Eve--and their creation certainly was not a part of the
culture of Paul's day!
†††††††††Another popular view is that Paul's prohibition against women teaching men
applies only to women teachers who are ill-prepared and influenced by false
teachers. According to this view, Eve (1 Timothy 2:13-14) is an example of
someone who "taught" Adam without adequate preparation. In this view, then,
women can teach men as long as they are well-prepared to do so.
†††††††††The other camp gives a few reasons why this view, too, is inadequate: 1)
Paul says nothing about Eve being a teacher of Adam; 2) There is no evidence that
women were teaching false doctrines; 3) Paul points out that Eve was deceived
because she took the initiative over the man whom God had appointed to be with
her and care for her. Women today can make the same mistake as Eve if they try
to become independent of those whom God has appointed over them. Paul's
comment abut Eve does not imply that all women are more susceptible to
doctrinal error. Nothing in the Genesis passage suggests that they are. If that were
the case, then women would not be able to teach anyone.
Paul appeals to the order of creation. Man was created first, then Eve. The point is
that man has headship because he was created first (cf. 1 Corinthians 11:3-10).
The headship is violated if women teach doctrine or exercise authority over men.
By linking the issue to creation, Paul shows that this view of women's roles is not
just for the local situation or for a limited time. The prohibition is an enduring
†††††††††The last view I will mention (though there are many others) is the belief that
Paul's statement, "I do not allow a woman to teach or exercise authority over a
man" (1 Timothy 2:12), does not forbid a woman to teach men. She is only
forbidden to teach or exercise authority over her husband. Opponents of this view
ask, if Paul meant "husband," why do translators always use the word man? In the
Greek, it turns out that the word Paul used, aner, can mean either "man as
opposed to woman" or "husband." Therefore, the context must tell us which
meaning Paul intended.
†††††††††Had Paul been referring to a woman's husband, we would expect that he
would have said "her" husband. In this verse, there is no possessive pronounce or
definite article with man. Elsewhere Paul uses such words: "Wives, be subject to
your own husbands..." (Ephesians 5:22; Colossians 3:18).
Looking at the broader context of the Timothy passage, we see that just prior to
Paul's saying that he doesn't allow a woman to teach or exercise authority over a
man, he said the following:
I want women to adorn themselves with proper clothing, modestly and
discreetly, not with braided hair and gold or pearls or costly garments; but
rather by means of good works, as befits women making a claim to
godliness. Let a woman quietly receive instruction with entire
submissiveness. But I do not allow a woman to teach or exercise authority
over a man, but to remain quiet (1 Timothy 2:9-12).
†††††††††Paul uses the plural "women" as a class--single and married alike. He uses
the singular "a woman" to refer to any woman, not just "a wife." Then in the same
breath, while speaking to married and single women, he uses the term in question,
aner (vs. 12). Therefore, that term cannot mean "husband." No wonder it is
always translated "man" rather than "husband."
†††††††††Now--here are a few questions for you. Send me your answers (I want to
make sure you understand what I'm trying to communicate).
1)††††††Who are the men who are to have authority? Are they believers only, or
2)††††††Who are the women who aren't to teach the men? Christians only, or non-believers too?
3)††††††Does this mean that women aren't allowed to teach men anything? What
specifically can't the women teach these particular men?
3) †††††When is the woman to "remain quiet" (1 Timothy 1:12)? Is this all the time,
or in a particular place?
4)††††††Tell me about the woman in John 4. How did the Lord end up using her
I await your answers.
Copyright 2007 © Donna Morley